"…(4) but when
the goodness and loving kindness of God our Savior appeared,
(5) he saved us, not because of deeds done by us in
righteousness, but in virtue of his own mercy, by the washing
of regeneration and renewal in the Holy Spirit, (6) which he
poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior,
(7)so that we might be justified by his grace and become
heirs in hope of eternal life" (Titus 3:4-7, RSV,
Catholic Edition).
In a past article posted on Alpha
& Omega Ministries, Michael Porter seeks to undertake an analysis of the text of Titus Chapter 3,
verses 4-7, and whether or
not this text can appropriately be used in Roman Catholic
theology, in regards to Justification through the Sacrament of
Water Baptism. His views regarding this Sacrament, and its
relation to regeneration, are made clear in the following
citation:
"As one
who adheres to Sola Scriptura, it is my assertion that the
text does not speak of baptismal regeneration, and that it is
a tradition forced onto Titus 3:5. If we allow the text to
define its own meaning, and allow it to speak on its own
terms, then I believe that we will find an entirely different
viewpoint than what the Catholic will hold to."
Mr. Porter makes it clear that, in
his understanding, the text of Titus 3:4-7 does not in any way
teach the doctrine of baptismal regeneration. As Mr. Porter has
chosen in his article to address the text alone, independent of
the testimony of early Church Fathers, I will leave this
particular issue out of my response as well.
Mr. Porter cites the following
regarding the text of Titus 3, presumably as a series of
arguments against the Roman Catholic view:
- "God is
the subject. He is doing the saving (v. 5) "
- "God's
mercy is given as the motivation for the action"
- "There
is an explicit denial of human activity, as he has not
saved us by works done in righteousness"
- "The
agency of the salvation is not of human origin, as both
washing of regeneration and renewal have the Holy Spirit
as the source "
- "The
means by which we received the Holy Spirit upon us was
Jesus "
However, Mr. Porter might be
surprised to learn that the Catholic Church is in agreement
regarding the above five points, with some minor qualification
regarding human deeds; that is, it is God doing the saving;
God's mercy is the motivation for this saving action; human
activity, with respect to 'deeds done by us in
righteousness', is explicitly denied in this passage as a
reason for our being saved; the salvation written of in Titus,
with respect to the 'washing of regeneration and renewal in
the Holy Spirit' is of divine, and not human, origin; and
finally, the means by which we receive the Holy Spirit is, in
fact, through Jesus Christ ("We believe in the Holy Spirit,
the Lord, the giver of life; Who proceeds from the Father and the
Son", Nicene Creed). Yet the fact that this regeneration has
God as its source cannot possibly be used as an argument against
the underlying sacramental nature of Titus 3 that it is through
matter, the material component of the sacrament, that the grace
that effects this regeneration is conveyed to us.
Mr. Porter's next statement
is very telling, and gets to the heart of the matter:
"So, one
has to wonder the basis upon which the Catholic feels
justified to argue that baptism done by human accomplishes
spiritual regeneration".
It's the role of man in the
administration of the Sacraments that has Mr. Porter on edge
here; essentially, he's saying 'regeneration comes from
God, not from man; how can baptism 'done by humans'
accomplish spiritual regeneration? It simply
can't…rituals don't save us…it is God who
justifies and saves, not man.'
In response to this, I would turn
Mr. Porter's attention to a similar scenario which played
out some time ago in a house in the town of Capharnaum:
"And getting into a boat
he crossed over and came to his own city. And behold, they
brought to him a paralytic, lying on his bed; and when Jesus
saw their faith he said to the paralytic, 'Take heart,
my son; your sins are forgiven.' And behold, some of the
scribes said to themselves, 'This man is
blaspheming.' But Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said,
'Why do you think evil in your hearts? For which is
easier, to say, 'Your sins are forgiven,' or to
say, 'Rise and walk'? But that you may know that
the Son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins'
– he then said to the paralytic – 'Rise, take
up your bed and go home.' And he rose and went home.
When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified
God, who had given such authority to men". (Matthew
9:1-8, emphasis mine; cf. Mark 2:1-12; Luke 5:17-26).
The text of Titus 3 aside for just
a moment, Mr. Porter's arguments regarding the absolute
non-necessity of human activity in soteriology sound eerily
similar to those of the scribes in the above passage; they saw
Jesus as only a man, claiming to do something attributed to God
alone (forgive sins). Re-read verse 9 above: "When the
crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had
given such authority to men"; this verse vindicates the
actions of Jesus, and is a hint of the doctrine of the
Incarnation; a doctrine which lies at the very heart of the
Sacraments. It is a doctrine which plays a most important role in
understanding the disparity in Protestantism between the role of
God and the role of man in salvation. It is a disparity that need
not exist, yet one which has been a constant source of false
teaching for centuries.
Mr. Porter continues his analysis
with a line by line exegesis of the passage; I'd like to
begin with his continued analysis of verse 5:
"Titus 3:5 He
saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in
righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of
regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit"
It is
important to note that at no point in this sentence are
humans mentioned, nor is human activity ever the subject or
means of any verb. But, humans are the objects of the main
verb in this clause. He saved us. In looking into this
passage, observing these things is important:
Saved whom? God saved us.
Why
did he save? Because of his mercy.
By
what means did he save? By the washing of regeneration
and renewal of the Spirit.
We observe
from the very outset that human activity is explicitly denied
in this passage. Certainly, if baptism were in view, we would
see some reference to at least our obedience (if, perhaps
someone wishes to separate obedience from an act of
righteousness). There would at least be some reference to our
activity. There is not, however. The phrase translated above
as, "not on the basis of deeds" is a negation of
human works. To further separate the work of salvation from
human effort, Paul uses a strong adversative (grk. alla).
Thus, a strong contrast is given here. It is not on the basis
of works (not just any works, but those done in
righteousness) but it is on the basis of his mercy. Thus, God
was not motivated to save because of a work of man, even
those deeds that are righteous (of which baptism is certainly
one), but because of his mercy. Even still, baptism is not
listed as a parallel activity, since the "washing"
is not given as a separate function from the Holy Spirit. In
other words, were one to be able to show that baptism does
regenerate a person in other passages, it still does not
affect the meaning of this passage. The meaning if this
passage is that in every respect, we are saved by God, and
not by any action on our part. It is entirely unilateral
here. Therefore, even if a person baptized another, and
regeneration happened at the same time, one could not say
that the baptism performed in anyway resulted in
regeneration. Otherwise, the meaning of the passage would be
on its head, and the motivation for God to save would,
indeed, we a work done in righteousness. If, truly, "all
our righteousness is as filthy rags", then even the
greatest of our deeds does not merit eternal life. Surely,
one could never make the case that anything less, or anything
other than a righteous deed would be worthy of merit. But,
Paul denies even the righteous deeds."
Ok…Mr. Porter has made quite
a leap here. It's one thing to say that "God was not
motivated to save because of a work of man"; this is quite
true, and is in line with Catholic theology; yet it's
erroneous to state "We observe from the very outset that
human activity is explicitly denied in this passage." St.
Paul is not explicitly denying all human activity…what
he's rejecting is the notion that works done prior to the
initial grace of justification could in any way be viewed as the
motivating reason behind God's grace. That is, St. Paul is
teaching us in Titus 3:5 that there are no works, performed
before justification, that can in any way 'merit' the
initial grace of justification. This initial grace is what the
Church terms 'actual grace', and is bestowed on man on
the basis of God's mercy alone. He continues:
"A great
deal of weight is placed upon the word "washing."
It is the Greek term loutron, which certainly bears
that meaning. The idea of the word is a ritual cleansing,
rather than simply a cleansing from dirt, though that meaning
is there. The practice of ritual cleansing before service is
not at all uncommon, as this was the rite the sons of Aaron
were required to practice. Thus, many have gone through great
lengths to somehow tie rituals of cleansing to loutron
in this context. But, this is an example of what is often
called "one-word exegesis". This is another way of
saying that the people are practicing eisegesis, or reading
into the text their assumptions. Let me explain. A single
word with no context has no meaning, since it has no defining
parameters to limit its meaning. To put it another way, a
word with no context bears every possible meaning that a
dictionary might give it, including poetic and metaphoric
usage. I have often used the word "fire" as an
example. With no context, the word fire can be a command
(Fire!) as in an execution, an exclamation (Fire!) as in the
warning of a fire, it can mean passion ( heart of fire) or
anger (heart of fire). Without context, it is simply
impossible to know truly the meaning of a term.
In this passage, there is no
difference. Simply connecting the lexical meaning of loutron
to ritual cleansing without observing what the context is telling
us about that term is irresponsible exegesis. In the context, we
must note that though the word is rich in meaning regarding
ritual cleansing, and has been interpreted as baptism (being a
Christian symbol of cleansing), loutron is the work of
the Spirit, and not of men. In context (v. 1-3), Paul tells us
that we need to be kind, respectful, and benevolent to others,
"we also once were foolish ourselves, disobedient, deceived,
enslaved to various lusts and pleasures, spending our life in
malice and envy, hateful, hating one another." In contrast
to that, God's undeserved kindness and benevolence toward us
resulted in our salvation. The sins and attributes that Paul uses
to describe our lost state are grim, as Paul pulls no punches.
But, works done in righteousness will not offset the ugliness of
that sin. Therefore, in accordance with his mercy, he saved us,
by pouring His Spirit upon us. He is the one who cleansed us, by
His Spirit, as the passage clearly states.
Mr. Porter begins the above
paragraph with somewhat of a nod towards the Catholic view of the
term loutron in Titus 3; that is, he allows for the idea
that this word might generally be used to indicate a ritual
cleansing, rather than a simple bath (a cleansing from dirt).
This is the same word (and, I would argue, the same context) used
in Ephesians 5:
"Husbands, love your
wives, as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for
her, that he might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the
washing (gk, loutron) of water with the word, that
he might present the church to himself in splendor, without
spot or wrinkle or any such thing, that she might be holy and
without blemish" (Eph 5:25-27).
A Catholic Commentary on Holy
Scripture has this to say about the above passage:
"25. In using his
authority the husband must take as his model Christ's
love for the Church. 'Thou hast seen the measure of
obedience, hear also the measure of love. Wouldst thou have
thy wife obedient to thee, as the Church is to Christ? Take
then thyself the same provident care for her, as Christ takes
for the Church. Yea, even if it shall be needful for thee to
give thy life for her…refuse it not' (Chrysostom).
Christ's love for the Church was perfect: he delivered
himself up for it. 26. And this supreme act of love had for
its goal and its effect a baptism of the Church, whereby at
once it is made holy. 'The laver of water' is a
metaphor based on the bath of water solemnly presented by
Greeks to a bride on the eve of her marriage. This Greek
custom had a purificatory and religious significance.
'In the word' is best read in connexion with what
immediately precedes (i.e. the laver of water). The sense,
then, is that the purification-sanctification conferred on
the Church by the death of Christ is a baptism of water
accompanied, or conditioned by, a sacramental formula"
(A Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture, pg. 1124 &
1125, para# 902 e).
This idea of a 'baptism of
water accompanied, or conditioned by, a sacramental formula'
is strengthened by the fact that the greek term used for
'word' in this passage is rhema, which
Strong's defines as "an utterance (individ., collect or
spec); by impl a matter of topic (espec of narration, command or
dispute); with a neg naught whatever: -+evil, +nothing, saying,
word" (Strong's, #4487).
We thus have two instances of the
word loutron: one, in Ephesians 5, in context seems to
be alluding to a ritualistic washing which coincides with a
sacramental formula; the other, in Titus 3, while not mentioned
in conjunction with a sacramental formula, nevertheless is still
associated with a ritual cleansing, as Mr. Porter has already
admitted. Yet he rejects the use of loutron in a
ritualistic way in Titus 3; what is his reason for so doing? He
writes:
"Simply
connecting the lexical meaning of loutron to ritual
cleansing without observing what the context is telling us
about that term is irresponsible exegesis. In the context, we
must note that though the word is rich in meaning regarding
ritual cleansing, and has been interpreted as baptism (being
a Christian symbol of cleansing), loutron is the
work of the Spirit, and not of men. In context (v. 1-3), Paul
tells us that we need to be kind, respectful, and benevolent
to others, "we also once were foolish ourselves,
disobedient, deceived, enslaved to various lusts and
pleasures, spending our life in malice and envy, hateful,
hating one another." In contrast to that, God's
undeserved kindness and benevolence toward us resulted in our
salvation. The sins and attributes that Paul uses to describe
our lost state are grim, as Paul pulls no punches. But, works
done in righteousness will not offset the ugliness of that
sin. Therefore, in accordance with his mercy, he saved us, by
pouring His Spirit upon us. He is the one who cleansed us, by
His Spirit, as the passage clearly states."
On the one hand, Mr. Porter gives
lip-service to the lexical meaning of loutron as a
ritualistic cleansing, and yet on the other hand he states that
"In the context, we must note that though the word is rich
in meaning regarding ritual cleansing, and has been interpreted
as baptism (being a Christian symbol of cleansing), loutron
is the work of the Spirit, and not of men." So…Mr.
Porter agrees that, lexically, loutron is "rich in
meaning regarding ritual cleansing", and that it has, in
fact, "been interpreted as baptism (being a Christian symbol
of cleansing)"…so what is his reason for rejecting the
Catholic interpretation of the use of loutron in Titus
3? He rejects this interpretation because, as he writes, "loutron
is the work of the Spirit, and not of men."
Thus Mr. Porter has once again
demonstrated a lack of understanding regarding the relationship
between God and man, in terms of the manner in which God gives us
sanctifying grace: that is, sacramentally, through matter.
Ultimately, his understanding of Titus 3, and his rejection of
the Catholic interpretation of this passage, has absolutely
nothing to do with context, and everything to do with a desire,
on his part, to remove man completely out of the soteriological
picture. Mr. Porter uses the same language in his remaining
paragraphs as he continues in his analysis:
"Whom he
poured out richly upon us through Jesus Christ, our
Savior.So, flowing into this next thought, having seen the
meaning, we now see exactly the means of "washing of
regeneration and renewal of the Holy Spirit." Again,
this next verse further denies human activity in that it is
not the Spirit being poured out upon us in baptism, for it is
not the work of man by which the Holy Spirit is poured out.
God is the subject here. He poured out the Holy Spirit upon
us. And, once again, neither man, nor the activity of man is
the means of this activity, for it is Christ that is the
means by which we have the Spirit. What we see, then, is that
this passage is not speaking of water, or physical baptism.
It is in fact using such language to refer to the Holy
Spirit. The Holy Spirit is poured, not water, God does the
pouring, not man, and water or ritual is not given as the
means by which such is done, but either the Holy Spirit, or
Jesus is are the means, motivated by God's mercy
alone."
Mr. Porter again denies any human
activity with respect to Titus 3, emphasizing that, in his view,
man plays absolutely no role in this 'pouring out'
because it is "not the work of man by which the Holy Spirit
is poured out. God is the subject here. He poured out the Holy
Spirit upon us." He compounds this erroneous view by
reiterating that "this passage is not speaking of water, or
physical baptism…The Holy Spirit is poured, not water, God
does the pouring, not man, and water or ritual is not given as
the means by which such is done, but either the Holy Spirit, or
Jesus are the means, motivated by God's mercy alone".
This notion that it's
'either God or man', but that it can't possibly be
both, has been the thorn in the theological side of Protestantism
since its inception.